Pass the ACDIS Clinical Documentation Specialist CCDS Questions and answers with ExamsMirror

The query should be rewritten as a neutral, clinically supported clarification request. The original wording is noncompliant because it directs the physician toward a particular diagnosis and explicitly identifies its reimbursement consequence.

The current ACDIS/AHIMA 2026 Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice, released in August 2026, supersede prior versions and emphasize that the query process exists to ensure the health record accurately reflects the patient's clinical status.

A compliant query could present relevant findings such as oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, blood-gas values, oxygen requirements, work of breathing, escalation to noninvasive or invasive ventilation, and treatment. It should then request clarification using clinically reasonable choices or another compliant format without highlighting which answer produces an MCC.

An oxygen saturation of 84% may be an important indicator, but a CDI specialist may not convert that finding independently into respiratory failure. The provider must evaluate the complete clinical picture.

Approval from a coding manager does not cure biased wording. Substituting “CC” for “MCC” likewise leaves the fundamental compliance problem intact.

CCDS Reference Topics: Query compliance; leading queries; respiratory failure; ethical CDI practice.

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Pressure-ulcer staging is one of the recognized circumstances in which ICD-10-CM permits the relevant clinical detail to be obtained from documentation by an appropriate non-provider clinician, such as a qualified wound-care nurse.

The provider establishes the medical diagnosis, while the wound-care clinician's specialized assessment may support the stage assignment. This distinction allows coding to reflect the expertise of clinicians who directly assess the wound without requiring physicians to duplicate every technical staging statement.

Option C is too broad. The exception permitting stage documentation from another clinician does not grant non-provider documentation unrestricted authority to establish all reportable medical diagnoses.

Pressure-ulcer stage is highly relevant because ICD-10-CM pressure-ulcer codes incorporate both anatomical site and stage. It can also have substantial implications for severity reporting, POA assessment, CMS HAC policy, nursing care, quality review, and risk adjustment.

When different clinicians document conflicting stages, clarification should be pursued rather than selecting the most severe value.

CCDS candidates should understand the distinction between provider-established diagnoses and specific coding elements that ICD-10-CM permits to originate from other qualified professionals.

CCDS Reference Topics: Pressure ulcers; wound staging; non-provider documentation; coding exceptions.

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Under the FY 2026 Hospital-Acquired Condition Reduction Program (HACRP), applicable subsection (d) hospitals in the worst-performing quartile based on the Total HAC Score receive a 1% payment reduction on applicable Medicare fee-for-service payments. CMS defines the worst-performing quartile as hospitals whose Total HAC Score is above the 75th percentile.

The FY 2026 program incorporates the CMS Patient Safety and Adverse Events Composite (PSI 90) plus five healthcare-associated infection measures: CLABSI, CAUTI, specified surgical-site infection, MRSA bacteremia, and C. difficile infection.

A single HAC does not automatically trigger the hospital-wide 1% HACRP reduction. Likewise, CMI is not the criterion used to determine HACRP penalties.

It is also important for CCDS candidates to distinguish the HAC Reduction Program from the separate DRA HAC/POA payment provision. CMS explicitly identifies them as distinct programs.

Accurate documentation and coding are important because quality measures rely on reliable clinical data, but CDI activity must remain focused on accurately representing the clinical record rather than manipulating quality metrics.

CCDS Reference Topics: HAC Reduction Program; PSI 90; HAI measures; quality payment; hospital performance.

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A query becomes problematic when it directs or influences the provider toward a diagnosis that is not supported by the patient's clinical record. Therefore, option C most accurately represents the leading-query concept in this answer set. A compliant query must be based on patient-specific clinical indicators and must preserve the provider's independent clinical judgment.

A multiple-choice query may include a diagnosis not previously documented when that diagnosis is supported by the clinical indicators and when reasonable alternatives are also offered. ACDIS/AHIMA guidance has specifically recognized that presenting a clinically supported new diagnosis among neutral choices does not automatically make the query leading.

Likewise, the timing of a query while a provider is documenting does not make it leading. Cause-and-effect clarification may also be addressed using an appropriate query format when both conditions are documented and the relationship remains uncertain.

The current 2026 ACDIS/AHIMA Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice supersede the prior versions and continue to establish compliant provider-query practice as a foundational CDI standard. Queries must be clinically supported, noncoercive, and constructed without reference to reimbursement or other desired outcomes.

CCDS Reference Topics: Leading queries; clinical indicators; compliant query construction; provider independence.

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ICD-10-CM presumes a causal relationship between hypertension and chronic kidney disease when both are documented, unless the provider specifically states that the conditions are unrelated. Therefore, the working coding logic should recognize hypertensive CKD and additionally identify the patient's CKD stage.

The FY 2026 Official Guidelines direct assignment of a code from category I12, Hypertensive chronic kidney disease, when hypertension and a condition classified to N18.- are both present. An additional N18.- code is required to identify the CKD stage. In this case, the documented stage is 3b.

A provider query solely to establish the hypertension-CKD relationship is unnecessary because ICD-10-CM itself supplies the presumed relationship. However, a query could become necessary if the physician explicitly states or strongly suggests that the CKD is unrelated to hypertension or if conflicting documentation exists.

The CDI specialist must distinguish coding conventions that automatically establish certain relationships from situations in which provider linkage is mandatory. This prevents unnecessary queries and supports accurate working-DRG assignment.

CCDS Reference Topics: Hypertensive CKD; presumed causal relationships; CKD staging; coding conventions; working MS-DRG.

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The arterial blood gas primarily demonstrates respiratory acidosis. The pH is significantly acidemic at 7.24, while PaCO₂ is markedly elevated at 72 mmHg. Because carbon dioxide acts as an acid through the carbonic acid buffering system, CO₂ retention lowers blood pH.

The bicarbonate of 30 mEq/L is mildly elevated, suggesting some renal compensation, which may occur in patients with chronic CO₂ retention from COPD. However, the substantial acidemia indicates that compensation is insufficient and an acute component may be present.

In a COPD patient with acute respiratory distress, such findings can create an appropriate clinical basis for clarification of acute or acute-on-chronic hypercapnic respiratory failure when other supporting indicators are present, such as worsening work of breathing, altered mental status, escalating oxygen needs, BiPAP, or intubation.

The CDI specialist should not independently equate every abnormal ABG with respiratory failure. The provider determines the clinical diagnosis.

Respiratory alkalosis would involve reduced PaCO₂. Metabolic acidosis generally involves reduced bicarbonate as the primary disturbance, while metabolic alkalosis involves primary bicarbonate elevation with alkalemia.

CCDS Reference Topics: ABG interpretation; respiratory acidosis; hypercapnia; COPD; respiratory failure.

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A high volume of unanswered queries most directly indicates inadequate provider engagement. This question is adapted from the current ACDIS Candidate Handbook's publicly released CCDS sample questions.

A provider may legitimately agree or disagree with a CDI query. Disagreement does not necessarily indicate poor engagement because the purpose of a query is clarification, not obtaining a predetermined diagnosis. A physician who reviews the clinical information and documents that the condition is ruled out, clinically undetermined, or otherwise different from the proposed possibilities is still participating appropriately.

Likewise, the number of queries generated is primarily a CDI workload or opportunity metric. It does not demonstrate whether physicians are responding.

A persistent nonresponse rate is more concerning because unanswered queries can delay final coding, create unresolved ambiguity, affect billing timeliness, reduce documentation completeness, and indicate weaknesses in provider communication or organizational query escalation procedures.

A CDI manager should not evaluate engagement from a single metric in isolation. Response time, response rate, education participation, documentation trends, service-line differences, and escalation frequency provide additional useful context.

CCDS Reference Topics: Physician engagement; query-response metrics; CDI analytics; program effectiveness.

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Severe protein-calorie malnutrition is the correct answer. This question is adapted from an official CCDS sample question published by ACDIS.

Under the FY 2026 MS-DRG Definitions Manual, E43, unspecified severe protein-calorie malnutrition, is classified as an MCC. In contrast, moderate and mild protein-calorie malnutrition codes are classified as CCs rather than MCCs.

An MCC can materially affect MS-DRG assignment when the applicable DRG family differentiates cases by MCC status and when no exclusion or other grouper rule prevents the effect. However, the financial effect is never sufficient justification for a query. Documentation must be clinically supported and reflect the patient's actual condition.

A dietitian may document detailed nutrition findings and malnutrition criteria, but the reportable diagnosis ordinarily requires documentation by the provider responsible for establishing diagnoses. Therefore, when strong nutritional indicators exist but the provider has not documented malnutrition, a compliant query may be appropriate.

For CCDS preparation, candidates should understand both the clinical characteristics of malnutrition and its coding/reimbursement classification.

CCDS Reference Topics: MCCs; malnutrition; MS-DRG methodology; documentation requirements; IPPS.

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The Hospital Readmissions Reduction Program (HRRP) reduces payments to applicable hospitals with excess readmissions for specified conditions and procedures. CMS calculates a payment adjustment factor ranging from 1.0 to 0.97, meaning the maximum reduction is 3%.

The adjustment applies to applicable Medicare fee-for-service base operating DRG payments rather than solely to the readmission cases themselves.

This differs from the HAC Reduction Program, which applies a 1% reduction to hospitals in the worst-performing quartile based on defined hospital-acquired-condition measures. Hospital Value-Based Purchasing uses another methodology in which 2% of participating hospitals' base operating DRG payments funds value-based incentive payments.

For CDI professionals, readmission programs demonstrate how clinical documentation can influence more than individual MS-DRG reimbursement. Accurate documentation of comorbidities, principal diagnoses, complications, discharge circumstances, and disease severity contributes to reliable risk-adjusted data.

However, CDI intervention must remain focused on clinical accuracy rather than attempting to alter readmission metrics through unsupported diagnoses.

CCDS Reference Topics: HRRP; readmissions; quality reimbursement; IPPS; risk adjustment.

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POA indicator W means the provider is clinically unable to determine whether the condition was present on admission. That is precisely what is documented in this scenario.

This must be distinguished from POA indicator U. U means the documentation is insufficient to determine POA status, whereas W reflects an actual clinical determination that the timing cannot be established even after appropriate assessment.

Indicator Y means the condition was present when the inpatient admission order occurred, while N means it was not present at that point.

This distinction matters because POA status contributes to CMS Hospital-Acquired Condition payment logic and hospital quality analyses. CDI specialists should attempt to obtain clarification when timing is unclear, but they must accept a legitimate provider determination that onset cannot clinically be established.

Not every ambiguous timeline should be forced into either Y or N. When clinical evidence truly cannot resolve the timing, W is an appropriate reporting outcome.

CMS maintains separate annual POA-exempt resources and HAC/POA coding information for the applicable fiscal year.

CCDS Reference Topics: POA indicators; W versus U; onset timing; HACs; inpatient coding.

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