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Questions # 1:

IT management requires all employees in the IT department to attend annual training on the department's mission, values, and key performance measures. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap.

B.

Monitoring gap.

C.

Accountability/reward failure.

D.

Communication failure.

Questions # 2:

Which of the following statements is true regarding how the scope of a consulting engagement should be established?

Options:

A.

The engagement client should be able to determine the scope to be applied to the engagement

B.

The internal auditor should establish a scope that does not impair her objectivity

C.

Any attempts by the engagement client to limit the scope should be considered a scope limitation

D.

The scope should include reviewing the effectiveness of the internal control environment

Questions # 3:

Regarding the chief audit executive (CAE). which ot the following is considered an impairment to the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE is asked to submit the liquidation of her travel allowances to human resources for approval.

C.

The CAE's supervisor is responsible for the risk management function.

D.

The CAE is asked to review new procedures before implementation.

Questions # 4:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following conditions would enhance the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The organizational culture rewards critical and objective thinking.

B.

The quality of work performed by the internal audit activity is periodically reviewed.

C.

The organization establishes effective governing body oversight.

D.

Audit assignments are rotated among internal audit staff.

Questions # 5:

Which of the following statements is true regarding external quality assessments?

Options:

A.

They can be performed by self-assessment with independent external validation, but they must be performed every three years.

B.

When a new chief audit executive (CAE) is appointed, an external quality assessment should be undertaken during the CAE’s first year of office.

C.

An external quality assessment must be conducted at least once every five years by a qualified, independent assessor or assessment team.

D.

An external assessment by a qualified professional from outside of the organization can be performed in place of an internal assessment.

Questions # 6:

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate example of the internal audit activity exercising due professional care during an audit of the payroll department?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors ensure that the work program is appropriately designed in order to identify all of the risks surrounding the payroll process.

B.

Internal auditors determine whether the policies, procedures, and practices of the payroll department are operating in accordance with relevant laws.

C.

Internal auditors verify whether the board of directors has implemented effective internal controls over the processes used by the payroll department.

D.

Internal auditors ask the organization's risk manager to determine whether the degree of work planned is sufficient to determine whether payroll payments were complete and accurate.

Questions # 7:

Which of the following situations would best indicate to the chief audit executive that one of the audit team members is struggling with application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor requests that an auditor carry out improvements to workpapers to address numerous problems: evidence is missing, references are incorrect, and conclusions are superfluous

B.

Audit work was completed m accordance with the established goals; however, a material misstatement was later uncovered in the audited area by another assurance provider.

C.

According to the audit report, several control failures occurred due to irresponsible behavior of local management, who was consequently deprived of bonuses and wrote a negative feedback to the auditor

D.

The delivery of audit results was several weeks late because the internal auditor had to spend additional time trying to understand the nature of certain transactions with derivation.

Questions # 8:

According to IIA guidance, the internal audit activity must be free from interference in which of the following areas in order to maintain organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Monitoring resources.

B.

Compensating the chief audit executive.

C.

Determining scope.

D.

Allocating internal costs.

Questions # 9:

Which of the following items related to the quality assurance and improvement program should the chief audit executive report to the board?

Options:

A.

Ongoing monitoring results

B.

Periodic management assessment results

C.

Annual risk assessment results

D.

Internal auditors' training evaluation results

Questions # 10:

Which should the internal auditor first consider when assessing fraud risks during an engagement?

Options:

A.

Compare the organizations fraud strategies with the industry's strategies.

B.

Review any related prior fraud investigations.

C.

Investigate any related fraud allegations.

D.

Communicate any suspicious fraud activities to management.

Questions # 11:

An external assessment was performed as part of the organization's quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following conclusions confirms that the internal audit activity is in conformance with the Standards'?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive is well qualified and has responsibilities over operational areas that the internal audit activity assesses.

B.

Periodic self-assessments are assigned to entry-level internal audit staff to support their continuing professional development.

C.

All audit workpapers are reviewed and signed by the engagement supervisor before the audit report is issued.

D.

Employees who rotate into the internal audit activity from other areas of the organization are assigned to audit areas where they previously worked, to take advantage of their operational expertise and experience.

Questions # 12:

There is a growing perception that employees generally evade their responsibilities. What impact will an internal auditor most likely see during an engagement?

Options:

A.

Supervisors are likely to reduce their level of supervision and increase span of control.

B.

Employees are likely to be supervised closely and given little freedom.

C.

Peer employees are likely to trust one another, but distrust management.

D.

Employees are likely to join forces to accomplish their duties as teams.

Questions # 13:

Which of the following circumstances would most likely be considered a potential red flag for fraud by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The monthly payroll reports are not vetted to ensure terminated employees have been removed from the payroll system.

B.

The volume of nonroutine journal entries has steadily increased over time.

C.

The database of approved suppliers has not been reviewed in the last year.

D.

The recent employee survey indicates that some employees remain unaware of the organization’s whistleblower hotline.

Questions # 14:

Which of the following best illustrates the principle of due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity uses key performance indicators for all staff members after all audit engagements.

B.

The internal auditors provide assurance to third parties indicating that their work was properly supervised.

C.

The internal auditors demonstrate they have an understanding of engagement objectives and scope.

D.

The internal auditors are heavily involved in training and development to enhance their skills.

Questions # 15:

Which level of corporate social responsibility does whistleblowing in companies primarily support?

Options:

A.

Ethical responsibility.

B.

Economic responsibility.

C.

Legal responsibility.

D.

Discretionary responsibility.

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