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Questions # 1:

Which of the following would be the MOST significant finding when reviewing a data backup process?

Options:

A.

Recovery testing is not performed.

B.

The data backup process is not documented.

C.

Tapes are not consistently rotated offsite.

D.

The key to the data safe is kept by the backup administrator.

Questions # 2:

Which of the following BEST describes the process of creating a digital envelope?

Options:

A.

The encryption key is compressed within a folder after a message is encoded using symmetric encryption.

B.

A message is encoded using symmetric encryption, and then the encryption key is secured using public key encryption.

C.

The message is hashed, and the hash total is sent using symmetric encryption.

D.

A message digest is encrypted using asymmetric encryption, and the encryption key is sent using asymmetric encryption.

Questions # 3:

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure the quality of software developed in an organization?

Options:

A.

Amount of successfully migrated software changes

B.

Reduction in the help desk budget

C.

Number of defects discovered in production

D.

Increase in quality assurance (QA) activities

Questions # 4:

A job is scheduled to transfer data from a transactional system database to a data lake for reporting purposes. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor?

Options:

A.

The inventory of scheduled jobs is not periodically reviewed

B.

Automated support ticket creation has not been implemented for job failures and errors

C.

Access to scheduling changes is restricted to job operators

D.

Notification alerts are configured to be sent to a support distribution group

Questions # 5:

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of batch processing monitoring?

Options:

A.

To comply with security standards

B.

To summarize the batch processing reporting

C.

To log error events in batch processing

D.

To prevent an incident that may result from batch failure

Questions # 6:

Which of the following would BEST prevent an arbitrary application of a patch?

Options:

A.

Database access control

B.

Established maintenance windows

C.

Network based access controls

D.

Change management

Questions # 7:

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an information security awareness program is effective?

Options:

A.

A reduction in the number of reported information security incidents

B.

A reduction in the success rate of social engineering attacks

C.

A reduction in the cost of maintaining the information security program

D.

A reduction in the number of information security attacks

Questions # 8:

An IS auditor is reviewing processes for importing market price data from external data providers. Which of the following findings should the auditor consider MOST critical?

Options:

A.

The transfer protocol does not require authentication.

B.

The quality of the data is not monitored.

C.

Imported data is not disposed of frequently.

D.

The transfer protocol is not encrypted.

Questions # 9:

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing the resiliency of an organizational network that has two internet connections?

Options:

A.

Network capacity testing has not been performed.

B.

The business continuity plan (BCP) has not been tested in the past six months.

C.

Non-critical applications are also connected to both connections.

D.

Both connections are from the same provider.

Questions # 10:

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the adequacy of controls for detecting inappropriate network activity in an organization?

Options:

A.

Reviewing SIEM reports of suspicious events in a timely manner

B.

Reviewing business application logs on a regular basis

C.

Troubleshooting connectivity issues routinely

D.

Installing a packet filtering firewall to block malicious traffic

Questions # 11:

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor assessing an organization's patch management program?

Options:

A.

Patches are deployed from multiple deployment servers.

B.

There is no process in place to scan the network to identify missing patches.

C.

Patches for medium- and low-risk vulnerabilities are omitted.

D.

There is no process in place to quarantine servers that have not been patched.

Questions # 12:

Which of the following tests is MOST likely to detect an error in one subroutine resulting from a recent change in another subroutine?

Options:

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Black-box testing

C.

Regression testing

D.

Stress testing

Questions # 13:

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure successful implementation when an organization decides to purchase software from available products on the market?

Options:

A.

Requirements definition

B.

Post-implementation review

C.

Support and maintenance contract

D.

Software escrow

Questions # 14:

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an IS auditor performing a risk assessment of an application programming interface (API) that feeds credit scores from a well-known commercial credit agency into an organizational system?

Options:

A.

A data dictionary of the transferred data

B.

A technical design document for the interface configuration

C.

The most recent audit report from the credit agency

D.

The approved business case for the API

Questions # 15:

Which of the following is PRIMARILY used in blockchain technology to create a distributed immutable ledger?

Options:

A.

Artificial intelligence (Al)

B.

Application hardening

C.

Edge computing

D.

Encryption

Questions # 16:

Which of the following is an objective of IT project portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Successful implementation of projects

B.

Selection of sound, strategically aligned investment opportunities

C.

Validation of business case benefits

D.

Establishment of tracking mechanisms

Questions # 17:

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

A risk assessment was not conducted prior to completing the BIA.

B.

System criticality information was only provided by the IT manager.

C.

A questionnaire was used to gather information as opposed to in-person interviews.

D.

The BIA was not signed off by executive management.

Questions # 18:

A steering committee established to oversee an organization's digital transformation program is MOSTlikely to be involved with which of the following activities?

Options:

A.

Preparing project status reports

B.

Designing interface controls

C.

Reviewing escalated project issues

D.

Documenting requirements

Questions # 19:

A PRIMARY objective of risk management is to keep the total cost of risks below the:

Options:

A.

amount of losses that would materially damage the firm.

B.

average cost of physical security measures.

C.

administrative cost of risk management.

D.

estimated amount of losses included in the firm's budget

Questions # 20:

An IS auditor is reviewing job scheduling software and notes instances of delayed processing time, unexpected job interruption, and out-of-sequence job execution. Which of the following should the auditor examine FIRST to help determine the reasons for these instances?

Options:

A.

System schedule

B.

Job schedule

C.

Exception log

D.

Change log

Questions # 21:

An IS auditor is reviewing desktop software profiles and notes that a user has downloaded and installed several games that are not approved by the company. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk that could result from this situation?

Options:

A.

Violation of user's privacy

B.

Potential for malware

C.

Noncompliance with the acceptable use policy

D.

Interoperability issues with company software

Questions # 22:

In a review of the organization standards and guidelines for IT management, which of the following should be included in an IS development methodology?

Options:

A.

Value-added activity analysis

B.

Risk management techniques

C.

Access control rules

D.

Incident management techniques

Questions # 23:

What is the MOST effective way to manage contractors' access to a data center?

Options:

A.

Badge identification worn by visitors

B.

Escort requirement for visitor access

C.

Management approval of visitor access

D.

Verification of visitor identification

Questions # 24:

Which of the following BEST indicates a need to review an organization's information security policy?

Options:

A.

High number of low-risk findings in the audit report

B.

Increasing exceptions approved by management

C.

Increasing complexity of business transactions

D.

Completion of annual IT risk assessment

Questions # 25:

An organization using a cloud provider for its online billing system requires the website to be accessible to customers at all times. What is the BEST way to verify the organization's business requirements are met?

Options:

A.

Invoke the right-to-audit clause.

B.

Require the vendor to report any outages longer than five minutes

C.

Monitor the service level agreement (SLA) with the vendor.

D.

Agree on periodic performance discussions with the vendor

Questions # 26:

An organization is modernizing its technology policy framework to demonstrate compliance with external industry standards. Which of the following would be MOST useful to an IS auditor for validating the outcome?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking of internal standards against peer organizations

B.

Inventory of the organization's approved policy exceptions

C.

Policy recommendations from a leading external consulting agency

D.

Mapping of relevant standards against the organization's controls

Questions # 27:

Which of the following findings related to segregation of duties should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor?

Options:

A.

The person who tests source code also approves changes.

B.

The person who administers servers is also part of the infrastructure management team.

C.

The person who creates new user accounts also modifies user access levels.

D.

The person who edits source code also has write access to production.

Questions # 28:

Which of the following is the BEST reason for software developers to use automated testing versus manual testing?

Options:

A.

CAATs are easily developed

B.

Improved regression testing

C.

Ease of maintaining automated test scripts

D.

Reduces the scope of acceptance testing

Questions # 29:

An incident response team has been notified of a virus outbreak in a network subnet. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Focus on limiting the damage.

B.

Remove and restore the affected systems.

C.

Verify that the compromised systems are fully functional.

D.

Document the incident.

Questions # 30:

An IS auditor is reviewing the service management of an outsourced help desk. Which of the following is the BEST indicator of how effectively the service provider is performing this function?

Options:

A.

Average ticket age

B.

Number of calls worked

C.

Customer satisfaction ratings

D.

Call transcript reviews

Questions # 31:

Which of the following should be used to evaluate an IT development project before an investment is committed?

Options:

A.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

B.

Rapid application development

C.

Function point analysis

D.

Feasibility study

Questions # 32:

The PRIMARY objective of the disaster recovery planning process is to:

Options:

A.

comply with regulatory requirements.

B.

ensure data can be recovered completely.

C.

minimize the operational interruption.

D.

align incident response time with industry best practices.

Questions # 33:

Which of the following will be the MOST effective method to verify that a service vendor keeps control levels as required by the client?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic onsite assessments using agreed-upon criteria.

B.

Conduct an unannounced vulnerability assessment of the vendor’s IT systems.

C.

Periodically review the service level agreement (SLA) with the vendor.

D.

Obtain evidence of the vendor's control self-assessment (CSA).

Questions # 34:

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure email confidentiality in transit?

Options:

A.

Encryption of corporate network traffic

B.

Complex user passwords

C.

End-to-end encryption

D.

Digital signatures

Questions # 35:

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor when using data analytics?

Options:

A.

The data source lacks integrity.

B.

The data analytics software is open source.

C.

The data set contains irrelevant fields.

D.

The data was not extracted by the auditor.

Questions # 36:

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system?

Options:

A.

Backups of the old system and data are not available online

B.

The change management process was not formally documented

C.

Data conversion was performed using manual processes

D.

Unauthorized data modifications occurred during conversion

Questions # 37:

How does the emergence of quantum computing impact traditional data encryption methods?

Options:

A.

Quantum computing may render classical encryption algorithms obsolete due to its ability to decrypt data with unprecedented efficiency.

B.

Quantum computing introduces new encryption techniques that are immune to decryption by classical and quantum computers alike.

C.

Quantum computing enhances the security of classical encryption algorithms by providing faster computation speeds.

D.

Quantum computing will require more frequent training on the application of classical data encryption methods.

Questions # 38:

Which of the following is an effective way to ensure the integrity of file transfers in a peer-to-peer (P2P) computing environment?

Options:

A.

Associate a message authentication code with each file transferred.

B.

Ensure the files are transferred through an intrusion detection system (IDS).

C.

Encrypt the packets shared between peers within the environment.

D.

Connect the client computers in the environment to a jump server.

Questions # 39:

What is the MAIN purpose of an organization's internal IS audit function?

Options:

A.

Identify and initiate necessary changes in the control environment to help ensure sustainable improvement.

B.

Independently attest the organization’s compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

Review the organization's policies and procedures against industry best practices and standards.

D.

Provide assurance to management about the effectiveness of the organization's risk management and internal controls.

Questions # 40:

An IS auditor has been asked to review an event log aggregation system to ensure risk management practices have been applied. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the auditor?

Options:

A.

Log feeds are uploaded via batch process.

B.

Completeness testing has not been performed on the log data.

C.

The log data is not normalized.

D.

Data encryption standards have not been considered.

Questions # 41:

While conducting a follow-up on an asset management audit, the IS auditor finds paid invoices for IT devices not recorded in the organization's inventory. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ask the asset management staff where the devices are.

B.

Alert both audit and operations management about the discrepancy.

C.

Ignore the invoices since they are not part of the follow-up.

D.

Make a note of the evidence to include it in the scope of a future audit.

Questions # 42:

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk associated with the deployment of a new production system?

Options:

A.

Problem management

B.

Incident management

C.

Configuration management

D.

Release management

Questions # 43:

If a recent release of a program has to be backed out of production, the corresponding changes within the delta version of the code should be:

Options:

A.

filed in production for future reference in researching the problem.

B.

applied to the source code that reflects the version in production.

C.

eliminated from the source code that reflects the version in production.

D.

reinstalled when replacing the version back into production.

Questions # 44:

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact as a result of the ongoing deterioration of a detective control?

Options:

A.

Decreased effectiveness of root cause analysis

B.

Decreased overall recovery time

C.

Increased number of false negatives in security logs

D.

Increased demand for storage space for logs

Questions # 45:

Which of the following is the BEST compensating control against separation of duties conflicts in new code development?

Options:

A.

Post-implementation change review

B.

Adding the developers to the change approval board

C.

Creation of staging environments

D.

A small number of people have access to deploy code

Questions # 46:

Which type of testing is used to identify security vulnerabilities in source code in the development environment?

Options:

A.

Interactive application security testing (IAST)

B.

Runtime application self-protection (RASP)

C.

Dynamic analysis security testing (DAST)

D.

Static analysis security testing (SAST)

Questions # 47:

An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's system development life cycle (SDLC) Which of the following MUST be included in the review?

Options:

A.

Ownership of the system quality management plan

B.

Utilization of standards in the system development processes and procedures

C.

Validation that system development processes adhere to quality standards

D.

Definition of quality attributes to be associated with the system

Questions # 48:

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization's job scheduling practices?

Options:

A.

Most jobs are run manually.

B.

Jobs are executed during working hours.

C.

Job dependencies are undefined.

D.

Job processing procedures are missing.

Questions # 49:

Which of the following threats is mitigated by a firewall?

Options:

A.

Intrusion attack

B.

Asynchronous attack

C.

Passive assault

D.

Trojan horse

Questions # 50:

Before the release of a new application into an organization’s production environment, which of the following should be in place to ensure that proper testing has occurred and rollback plans are in place?

Options:

A.

Change approval board

B.

Standardized change requests

C.

Independent third-party approval

D.

Secure code review

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