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Pass the CWNP CWNA CWNA-106 Questions and answers with ExamsMirror

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Questions # 1:

What is the intended use for the WLAN hardware known as a pole or mast mount unit?

Options:

A.

Mounting a lightning arrestor to a grounding rod

B.

Mounting an omnidirectional antenna to a mast

C.

Mounting an RF amplifier to a dipole antenna

D.

Mounting a PoE injector to a perforated radome

E.

Mounting an access point to a site survey tripod

Questions # 2:

What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.

B.

Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.

C.

With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.

D.

Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types must be sent to the controller.

E.

In a distributed data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and decryption.

Questions # 3:

What distinguishes an independent basic service set (IBSS) from an infrastructure basic service set (BSS)?

Options:

A.

An IBSS does not have a distribution system (DS), but a BSS does.

B.

An IBSS does not require beacon frames, but a BSS does.

C.

An IBSS does not support 802.11 authentication or association, but a BSS does.

D.

An IBSS does not support any 802.11ac enhancements, but a BSS does.

Questions # 4:

When planning an access point deployment that utilizes Power over Ethernet (PoE) switches at the network edge, what design decision could adversely affect the operation of 802.3-2012, Clause 33 APs?

Options:

A.

All ports on the Ethernet switch will be supporting Class 3 PoE powered devices.

B.

Some APs are connected to a PoE switch and are also receiving power from an AC outlet.

C.

The Ethernet switch uplink ports are not connected to an 802.3-2012, Clause 33-compliant core or distribution Ethernet switch.

D.

A gigabit Ethernet switch port supporting an 802.11a/g AP auto-negotiates to 100 Mbps.

E.

The installation team is not informed that PoE support will reduce the recommended maximum UTP cabling length from 100m to 50m.

Questions # 5:

To ease user complexity, your company has implemented a single SSID for all employees. However, the network administrator needs a way to control the network resources that can be accessed by each employee based on their department.

What WLAN feature would allow the network administrator to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

VRRP

C.

RBAC

D.

IPSec

E.

WIPS

F.

WPA2

Questions # 6:

What WLAN system feature is required to produce a scenario with the following configuration on a single access point? (Choose 2)

1. SSID = Guest / BSSID = AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA /

VLAN = 22 / Subnet = 192.168.22.0 / RF Channel = 6

2. SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /

VLAN = 33 / Subnet = 192.168.33.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type A

3. SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /

VLAN = 44 / Subnet = 192.168.44.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type B

Options:

A.

Multiple WLAN Profiles

B.

Call Admission Control

C.

Virtual Cell with SCA

D.

Access Categories

E.

User-based authentication

F.

Dual-radio AP hardware

G.

Integrated DHCP server

Questions # 7:

What mechanisms are specified by the IEEE 802.11 standard to attempt to prevent multiple radios from transmitting on the RF medium at a given point in time? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Random backoff timer

B.

Clear channel assessment

C.

Network allocation vector

D.

Slot assessment value

E.

Collision detection

Questions # 8:

A Wi-Fi Alliance interoperability certificate indicates that a device is a/b/g/n certified. It further indicates one transmit and receive spatial stream for both the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz bands. It further indicates support for both WPA and WPA2 Enterprise and Personal. Finally, it indicates support for EAP-TLS, EAP-TTLS/MSCHAPv2, PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2 and PEAPv1/EAP-GTC. Which one of the following statements is false?

Options:

A.

This client device supports protection mechanisms such as RTS/CTS and/or CTS-to-Self.

B.

This client device supports both TKIP and CCMP cipher suites.

C.

300 Mbps is the maximum supported data rate for this device.

D.

This client device supports the ERP, OFDM, and HT physical layer specifications.

E.

This client device supports X.509 certificates for EAP authentication.

Questions # 9:

In an enterprise WLAN, what condition will prevent a dual-band VHT/HT client device from performing a fast and seamless transition (i.e. latency-sensitive applications are not disrupted) between two access points that are managed by the same WLAN controller?

Options:

A.

The current AP is using channel 1 and the new AP is using channel 40.

B.

The SSID of the current AP does not match the SSID of the new AP.

C.

The current AP supports only HT and the new AP is VHT capable.

D.

The access points are hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames.

Questions # 10:

As you prepare for a site survey in a multi-floor corporate office, you have learned about several wireless devices that support connection-oriented, real-time applications. These applications are sensitive to service interruptions and require excellent signal quality, low latency, and low loss. For that reason, it is important to identify sources of RF interference as well as building characteristics that would cause RF blockage or dead spots.

What systems or environmental characteristics are most likely to cause interference or RF blockage and disrupt service for these applications? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Microwave ovens

B.

Narrow hallways

C.

Elevator shafts

D.

RFID chokepoints

E.

Workspace dividers

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