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653 Students Passed

88% Average Score

93% Same Questions
Viewing page 9 out of 17 pages
Viewing questions 121-135 out of questions
Questions # 121:

The quality manager needs to identify a set of process measures to improve wound care outcomes. The first step should be to

Options:

A.

review prior three years on wound outcome best practices.

B.

perform literature search for clinical trials relating to wound care.

C.

conduct clinical record review of wound care sentinel events.

D.

search for evidence-based guidelines for wound care.

Questions # 122:

A healthcare quality professional identifies a need to improve compliance with colon cancer screening among primary care patients. Which of the following interventions should be used?

Options:

A.

Develop a clinical pathway for managing high-risk patients.

B.

Send reminders to patients six months before required screening.

C.

Measure the number of patients who complete an annual screening.

D.

Improve documentation of patient education on cancer risk factors.

Questions # 123:

A new pediatric psychiatric unit will open in one year. The utilization coordinator is responsible for developing the utilization management program. The program's success will depend on which of the following factors?

Options:

A.

obtaining approval from the chief psychiatrist at each stage of development

B.

developing the program and presenting it to the appropriate staff members

C.

involving the team members in the development of the program

D.

providing educational in-services to all team members involved

Questions # 124:

A hospital collects patient satisfaction data by mailing surveys to patients discharged home and analyzes the responses they receive. What is the most significant limitation of this sampling methodology?

Options:

A.

Patients may notrespond to all questions in the survey.

B.

Responses will be time-consuming to convert from hard copy responses to soft copies for data storage.

C.

Hospital employees have no control over which patients respond to the survey.

D.

Patients who respond to the survey may not be representative of all discharged patients.

Questions # 125:

Several leaders in a healthcare facility have differing opinions regarding the pursuit of alternative certifications and recognitions. The Chief Quality Officer (CQO) has opted to retain an external quality consultant to determine relevance, appropriateness, and readiness for an alternative certification. The most appropriate role for an external consultant is to

Options:

A.

evaluate the facility’s needs, goals, and stakeholder input.

B.

determine the final certification selection.

C.

uncover other opportunities for improvement within the facility.

D.

support the CQO’s choice for alternative certification.

Questions # 126:

A Rapid Process Improvement Team began a new process on January 7 to reduce targeted events per bed day outcome. The team asked the quality analyst to help determine whether the new process was successful and should be continued. Based on the control chart the quality analyst produced, which of the following is the best conclusion?

Options:

A.

There was an increasing shift in the process, recommend discontinuing the process.

B.

There was a decreasing shift in the process, recommend continuing the process.

C.

There was a spike in the process, recommend discontinuing the process.

D.

There was a decreasing trend in the process, recommend discontinuing the process.

Questions # 127:

A 300-bed healthcare organization has decided to apply for accreditation with a new accreditation body. The accreditation readiness coordinator should first

Options:

A.

review the standards required for accreditation.

B.

establish an operating budget for staff accreditation education.

C.

obtain accreditation results from other facilities.

D.

assess staff education needs related to accreditation.

Questions # 128:

A healthcare quality professional has been asked to evaluate the integrity of the data used for physician scorecards. When the data abstractors are asked to review physician A's charts, they each report back conflicting information on the physician’s performance. The results are as follows:

Abstractor 1: Compliance = 85%

Abstractor 2: Compliance = 75%

Abstractor 3: Compliance = 100%

This most likely indicates a problem with

Options:

A.

Sampling selection

B.

Interrater reliability

C.

Review tool validity

D.

Data definition

Questions # 129:

Which of the following is the most effective means of communicating commitment to patient safety?

Options:

A.

CEO presenting most recent medication error rates to the governing body

B.

articles by a CEO in the employee newsletter

C.

posters and bulletin boards on units displaying up-to-date patient falls data

D.

senior leaders having discussions on units with front-line staff

Questions # 130:

A provider’s Ongoing Professional Practice Evaluation (OPPE) profile is shown below. In this organization, if a provider partially meets or does not meet performance expectations, they are referred to peer review for a Focused Professional Practice Evaluation (FPPE).

Fully Meets: >80% of measures at threshold

Meets: 65% to 80% of measures at threshold

Partially Meets: 40% to 64% of measures threshold

Does Not Meet: <40% of measures at threshold

After reviewing this provider’s overall profile, what should the healthcare quality professional suggest?

Options:

A.

The provider fully meets expectations; do nothing.

B.

The provider does not meet expectations; refer to peer review.

C.

The provider partially meets expectations; retain privileges.

D.

The provider meets expectations; retain privileges.

Questions # 131:

A healthcare system has multiple medical clinics across a large geographic area. What is the best way to deliver education to assure continuous survey readiness?

Options:

A.

train the trainer sessions with clinic managers

B.

mandatory modules on accreditation standards

C.

one-on-one sessions with noncompliant employees

D.

just-in-time training to the highest risk clinics

Questions # 132:

Which of the following is a primary intervention for type 2 diabetes?

Options:

A.

Lifestyle change education

B.

Free medication delivery

C.

No-cost annual screening tests

D.

Lowered cost of medications

Questions # 133:

When implementing a new process or procedure, which of the following tools should be used to anticipate and prevent potential problems?

Options:

A.

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis

B.

Flow Chart

C.

Root Cause Analysis

D.

Cause and Effect Diagram

Questions # 134:

A focused professional practice evaluation (FPPE) Is Initiated

Options:

A.

annually for all providers on staff.

B.

during the survey corrective action period.

C.

at the discretion of the chief medical officer (CMO).

D.

when new privileges are granted.

Questions # 135:

Sentinel events are most often the result of variations in:

Options:

A.

Structure.

B.

Staffing.

C.

Competence.

D.

Process.

Viewing page 9 out of 17 pages
Viewing questions 121-135 out of questions
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