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Questions # 31:

The Forwarding Profile defines which of the following?

Options:

A.

Fallback methods and behavior when a DTLS tunnel cannot be established

B.

Application PAC file location

C.

System PAC file when off trusted network

D.

Fallback methods and behavior when a TLS tunnel cannot be established

Questions # 32:

Which of the following statements most accurately describes Zero Trust Connections?

Options:

A.

They require that SSH inspection be enabled.

B.

They are dependent on a fixed / static network environment.

C.

They are independent of any network for control or trust.

D.

They require IPV6.

Questions # 33:

What are the two types of Probe supported in ZDX?

Options:

A.

Web Probes and Cloud Path Probes

B.

Application Probes and Network Probes

C.

Page Speed Probes and Connection Speed Probes

D.

SSaas Probes and Router Probes

Questions # 34:

How is data gathered with ZDX Advanced client performance?

Options:

A.

By generating synthetic transactions to designated Internet and Private applications every 5 minutes and measuring the performance of those sessions.

B.

By constantly analyzing live user sessions to both Internet and Private applications and measuring the performance of those sessions.

C.

By using AI predictive analysis ZDX can extrapolate near-term client performance based upon recent past data observed.

D.

By constantly analyzing live user sessions to critical SaaS applications and measuring the performance of those sessions.

Questions # 35:

When configuring a ZDX custom application and choosing Type: 'Network' and completing the configuration by defining the necessary probe(s), which performance metrics will an administrator NOT get for users after enabling the application?

Options:

A.

Server Response Time

B.

ZDX Score

C.

Client Gateway IP Address

D.

Disk I/O

Questions # 36:

How does Zscaler Risk360 quantify risk?

Options:

A.

The number of risk events is totaled by location and combined.

B.

A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

C.

Time to mitigate each identified risk is totaled, averaged, and tracked to show ongoing trends.

D.

A risk score is computed for each of the four stages of breach.

Questions # 37:

What does the user risk score enable a user to do?

Options:

A.

Compare the user risk score with other companies to evaluate users vs other companies.

B.

Determine whether or not a user is authorized to view unencrypted data.

C.

Configure stronger user-specific policies to monitor & control user-level risk exposure.

D.

Determine if a user has been compromised

Questions # 38:

What is a key advantage of Zscaler's unified approach to data protection?

Options:

A.

Reducing visibility into data movement across the cloud.

B.

Working together with traditional hardware appliances.

C.

Increasing complexity and manageability in DLP security policies.

D.

Eliminating of gaps associated with multiple point solutions.

Questions # 39:

Which type of malware is specifically used to deliver other malware?

Options:

A.

RAT

B.

Maldocs

C.

Downloaders

D.

Exploitation tool

Questions # 40:

What Zscaler control can be implemented to limit exposure to malicious content?

Options:

A.

Role Based Access control (RBAC)

B.

Bandwidth Controls

C.

File type Controls

D.

Zscaler Digital Experience

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