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Pass the American Society of Microbiology ASM-ABMM ABMM Questions and answers with ExamsMirror

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Questions # 21:

A patient presents with a chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats. Chest X-ray shows cavitarylesions in the upper lobes. Sputum is acid-fast positive. Drug susceptibility testing reveals resistance to isoniazid but susceptibility to rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide. The MOST appropriate treatment regimen should include:

Options:

A.

Isoniazid and rifampin

B.

Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

C.

Rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide

D.

Isoniazid, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide

Questions # 22:

A microbiology laboratory is performing Gram staining on a bacterial smear. If the safranin counterstain is omitted, Gram-negative bacteria will appear:

Options:

A.

Purple

B.

Blue

C.

Colorless

D.

Brown

Questions # 23:

A researcher is studying the genetic relatedness of different isolates of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following molecular typing methods provides the highest discriminatory power for distinguishing between closely related strains?

Options:

A.

Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis

B.

Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE)

C.

Spoligotyping

D.

Whole-genome sequencing (WGS)

Questions # 24:

A clinical microbiology laboratory is preparing to validate a new molecular assay for the detection of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). To assess the positive predictive value (PPV) of the assay, they need to know:

Options:

A.

The number of true positive results divided by the total number of positive test results.

B.

The number of true negative results divided by the total number of negative test results.

C.

The number of true positive results divided by the total number of true positive and false negative results.

D.

The number of true negative results divided by the total number of true negative and false positive results.

Questions # 25:

A patient with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections caused by Escherichia coli develops a new infection. The urine isolate is resistant to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. The MOST common mechanism of resistance to this antibiotic combination in E. coli involves:

Options:

A.

Mutations in the genes encoding dihydrofolate reductase and dihydropteroate synthase.

B.

Increased production of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA).

C.

Expression of efflux pumps that specifically target trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole.

D.

Enzymatic inactivation of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole.

Questions # 26:

A clinical microbiology laboratory is performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing on a Streptococcus pneumoniae isolate recovered from a patient with meningitis. The isolate shows reduced susceptibility to penicillin (MIC = 2 µg/mL). The MOST likely mechanism for this reduced susceptibility is:

Options:

A.

Production of beta-lactamase enzymes that hydrolyze penicillin.

B.

Alterations in the penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) that reduce their affinity for penicillin.

C.

Increased activity of efflux pumps that actively remove penicillin from the cell.

D.

Modification of the peptidoglycan structure, preventing penicillin binding.

Questions # 27:

The azole class of antifungal agents (e.g., fluconazole, voriconazole) exerts its effect primarily by inhibiting which fungal-specific enzyme involved in membrane synthesis?

Options:

A.

Squalene epoxidase

B.

Beta-(1,3)-glucan synthase

C.

Lanosterol 14-alpha-demethylase

D.

Chitin synthase

Questions # 28:

A patient with a history of neutropenia following chemotherapy develops a severe pneumonia. Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid reveals the presence of hyaline, septate hyphae with frequent dichotomous branching at acute angles. Culture yields a filamentous fungus that produces conidiophores with a vesicle bearing phialides that release chains of conidia. The MOST likely genus is:

Options:

A.

Mucor

B.

Rhizopus

C.

Aspergillus

D.

Fusarium

Questions # 29:

Which pattern on a Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion plate, showing resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to erythromycin but susceptibility to clindamycin with a flattening of the clindamycin zone adjacent to the erythromycin disk (D-zone test positive), indicates inducible clindamycin resistance?

Options:

A.

Indicates the strain possesses the msrA gene

B.

Indicates the strain should be reported as clindamycin susceptible

C.

Indicates the strain possesses an erm gene and should be reported as clindamycin resistant

D.

Indicates the strain is tolerant to clindamycin

Questions # 30:

A clinical trial is evaluating the efficacy of a new antifungal agent against invasive aspergillosis. Serum galactomannan levels are being used as a biomarker to monitor the infection. A decrease in galactomannan levels during treatment would indicate:

Options:

A.

Development of resistance to the antifungal agent.

B.

Successful clearance or reduction of the Aspergillus burden.

C.

A false-positive result in the galactomannan assay.

D.

Concurrent infection with a non-Aspergillus mold.

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