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Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system?
Options:
Encryption of audit logs
No archiving of audit logs
Hashing of audit logs
Remote access audit logs
Remote access audit logs could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system. A DoS attack is a type of attack that aims to disrupt or degrade the availability or performance of a system or a network by overwhelming it with excessive or malicious traffic or requests. An authentication system is a system that verifies the identity and credentials of the users or entities that want to access the system or network resources or services. An authentication system can use various methods or factors to authenticate the users or entities, such as passwords, tokens, certificates, biometrics, or behavioral patterns.
Remote access audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur when the users or entities access the system or network remotely, such as via the internet, VPN, or dial-up. Remote access audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the remote access behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents.
Remote access audit logs could cause a DoS against an authentication system, because they could consume a large amount of disk space, memory, or bandwidth on the authentication system, especially if the remote access is frequent, intensive, or malicious. This could affect the performance or functionality of the authentication system, and prevent or delay the legitimate users or entities from accessing the system or network resources or services. For example, an attacker could launch a DoS attack against an authentication system by sending a large number of fake or invalid remote access requests, and generating a large amount of remote access audit logs that fill up the disk space or memory of the authentication system, and cause it to crash or slow down.
The other options are not the factors that could cause a DoS against an authentication system, but rather the factors that could improve or protect the authentication system. Encryption of audit logs is a technique that involves using a cryptographic algorithm and a key to transform the audit logs into an unreadable or unintelligible format, that can only be reversed or decrypted by authorized parties. Encryption of audit logs can enhance the security and confidentiality of the audit logs by preventing unauthorized access or disclosure of the sensitive information in the audit logs. However, encryption of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the integrity or privacy of the audit logs. No archiving of audit logs is a practice that involves not storing or transferring the audit logs to a separate or external storage device or location, such as a tape, disk, or cloud. No archiving of audit logs can reduce the security and availability of the audit logs by increasing the risk of loss or damage of the audit logs, and limiting the access or retrieval of the audit logs. However, no archiving of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the availability or preservation of the audit logs. Hashing of audit logs is a technique that involves using a hash function, such as MD5 or SHA, to generate a fixed-length and unique value, called a hash or a digest, that represents the audit logs. Hashing of audit logs can improve the security and integrity of the audit logs by verifying the authenticity or consistency of the audit logs, and detecting any modification or tampering of the audit logs. However, hashing of audit logs could not cause a DoS against an authentication system, because it does not affect the availability or performance of the authentication system, but rather the integrity or verification of the audit logs.
In which of the following programs is it MOST important to include the collection of security process data?
Options:
Quarterly access reviews
Security continuous monitoring
Business continuity testing
Annual security training
Security continuous monitoring is the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data. Security process data is the data that reflects the performance, effectiveness, and compliance of the security processes, such as the security policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines. Security process data can include metrics, indicators, logs, reports, and assessments. Security process data can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the security and risk management of the system by providing the visibility and awareness of the security posture, vulnerabilities, and threats
Enhancing the security and decision making of the system by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
Increasing the security and improvement of the system by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
Security continuous monitoring is the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because it is the program that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of the system. Security continuous monitoring can enable the system to detect and respond to any security issues or incidents in a timely and effective manner, and to adjust and improve the security controls and processes accordingly. Security continuous monitoring can also help the system to comply with the security requirements and standards from the internal or external authorities or frameworks.
The other options are not the programs in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, but rather programs that have other objectives or scopes. Quarterly access reviews are programs that involve reviewing and verifying the user accounts and access rights on a quarterly basis. Quarterly access reviews can ensure that the user accounts and access rights are valid, authorized, and up to date, and that any inactive, expired, or unauthorized accounts or rights are removed or revoked. However, quarterly access reviews are not the programs in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because they are not focused on the security status, events, and activities of the system, but rather on the user accounts and access rights. Business continuity testing is a program that involves testing and validating the business continuity plan (BCP) and the disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the system. Business continuity testing can ensure that the system can continue or resume its critical functions and operations in case of a disruption or disaster, and that the system can meet the recovery objectives and requirements. However, business continuity testing is not the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because it is not focused on the security status, events, and activities of the system, but rather on the continuity and recovery of the system. Annual security training is a program that involves providing and updating the security knowledge and skills of the system users and staff on an annual basis. Annual security training can increase the security awareness and competence of the system users and staff, and reduce the human errors or risks that might compromise the system security. However, annual security training is not the program in which it is most important to include the collection of security process data, because it is not focused on the security status, events, and activities of the system, but rather on the security education and training of the system users and staff.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?
Options:
Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken
Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability
Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization
Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels
Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels is the primary benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure. Security testing is a process that involves evaluating and verifying the security posture, vulnerabilities, and threats of a system or a network, using various methods and techniques, such as vulnerability assessment, penetration testing, code review, and compliance checks. Security testing can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the security and risk management of the system or network by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps
Enhancing the security and decision making of the system or network by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
Increasing the security and improvement of the system or network by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
A security testing report is a document that summarizes and communicates the findings and recommendations of the security testing process to the relevant stakeholders, such as the technical and management teams. A security testing report can have various formats and structures, depending on the scope, purpose, and audience of the report. However, a formalized security testing report format and structure is one that follows a standard and consistent template, such as the one proposed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) in the Special Publication 800-115, Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment. A formalized security testing report format and structure can have several components, such as:
Executive summary: a brief overview of the security testing objectives, scope, methodology, results, and conclusions
Introduction: a detailed description of the security testing background, purpose, scope, assumptions, limitations, and constraints
Methodology: a detailed explanation of the security testing approach, techniques, tools, and procedures
Results: a detailed presentation of the security testing findings, such as the vulnerabilities, threats, risks, and impact levels, organized by test phases or categories
Recommendations: a detailed proposal of the security testing suggestions, such as the remediation, mitigation, or prevention strategies, prioritized by impact levels or risk ratings
Conclusion: a brief summary of the security testing outcomes, implications, and future steps
Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels is the primary benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, because it can ensure that the security testing report is clear, comprehensive, and consistent, and that it provides the relevant and useful information for the technical and management teams to make informed and effective decisions and actions regarding the system or network security.
The other options are not the primary benefits of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but rather secondary or specific benefits for different audiences or purposes. Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the executive summary component of the report, which is a brief and high-level overview of the report, rather than the entire report. Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the methodology and results components of the report, which are more technical and detailed parts of the report, rather than the entire report. Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization is a benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure, but it is not the primary benefit, because it is more relevant for the introduction and conclusion components of the report, which are more contextual and strategic parts of the report, rather than the entire report.
A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files?
Options:
Host VM monitor audit logs
Guest OS access controls
Host VM access controls
Guest OS audit logs
Guest OS audit logs are what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation. A VM environment is a system that allows multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run on a single physical machine, each with its own OS and applications. A VM environment can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the utilization and efficiency of the physical resources by sharing them among multiple VMs
Enhancing the security and isolation of the VMs by preventing or limiting the interference or communication between them
Increasing the flexibility and scalability of the VMs by allowing them to be created, modified, deleted, or migrated easily and quickly
A guest OS is the OS that runs on a VM, which is different from the host OS that runs on the physical machine. A guest OS can have its own security controls and mechanisms, such as access controls, encryption, authentication, and audit logs. Audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur within a system or a network, such as the access and usage of the data files. Audit logs can provide a reactive and detective layer of security by enabling the monitoring and analysis of the system or network behavior, and facilitating the investigation and response of the incidents.
Guest OS audit logs are what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation, because they can provide the most accurate and relevant information about the user’s actions and interactions with the data files on the VM. Guest OS audit logs can also help the administrator to identify and report any unauthorized or suspicious access or disclosure of the data files, and to recommend or implement any corrective or preventive actions.
The other options are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files in a VM environment that has five guest OS and provides strong isolation, but rather what an administrator might review for other purposes or aspects. Host VM monitor audit logs are records that capture and store the information about the events and activities that occur on the host VM monitor, which is the software or hardware component that manages and controls the VMs on the physical machine. Host VM monitor audit logs can provide information about the performance, status, and configuration of the VMs, but they cannot provide information about the user’s access to data files on the VMs. Guest OS access controls are rules and mechanisms that regulate and restrict the access and permissions of the users and processes to the resources and services on the guest OS. Guest OS access controls can provide a proactive and preventive layer of security by enforcing the principles of least privilege, separation of duties, and need to know. However, guest OS access controls are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files, but rather what an administrator must configure and implement to protect the data files. Host VM access controls are rules and mechanisms that regulate and restrict the access and permissions of the users and processes to the VMs on the physical machine. Host VM access controls can provide a granular and dynamic layer of security by defining and assigning the roles and permissions according to the organizational structure and policies. However, host VM access controls are not what an administrator must review to audit a user’s access to data files, but rather what an administrator must configure and implement to protect the VMs.
Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations?
Options:
Change management processes
User administration procedures
Operating System (OS) baselines
System backup documentation
Operating System (OS) baselines are of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations. OS baselines are standard or reference configurations that define the desired and secure state of an OS, including the settings, parameters, patches, and updates. OS baselines can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the security and compliance of the OS by applying the best practices and recommendations from the vendors, authorities, or frameworks
Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the OS by optimizing the resources and functions
Increasing the consistency and uniformity of the OS by reducing the variations and deviations
Facilitating the monitoring and auditing of the OS by providing a baseline for comparison and measurement
OS baselines are of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they can enable the auditors to evaluate and verify the current and actual state of the OS against the desired and secure state of the OS. OS baselines can also help the auditors to identify and report any gaps, issues, or risks in the OS configurations, and to recommend or implement any corrective or preventive actions.
The other options are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, but rather of assistance for other purposes or aspects. Change management processes are processes that ensure that any changes to the system configurations are planned, approved, implemented, and documented in a controlled and consistent manner. Change management processes can improve the security and reliability of the system configurations by preventing or reducing the errors, conflicts, or disruptions that might occur due to the changes. However, change management processes are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they do not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the procedures and controls for managing the changes. User administration procedures are procedures that define the roles, responsibilities, and activities for creating, modifying, deleting, and managing the user accounts and access rights. User administration procedures can enhance the security and accountability of the user accounts and access rights by enforcing the principles of least privilege, separation of duties, and need to know. However, user administration procedures are not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because they do not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the rules and tasks for administering the users. System backup documentation is documentation that records the information and details about the system backup processes, such as the backup frequency, type, location, retention, and recovery. System backup documentation can increase the availability and resilience of the system by ensuring that the system data and configurations can be restored in case of a loss or damage. However, system backup documentation is not of greatest assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations, because it does not define the desired and secure state of the system configurations, but rather the backup and recovery of the system configurations.
In which order, from MOST to LEAST impacted, does user awareness training reduce the occurrence of the events below?

Options:

The correct order is:
User-instigated
Virus infiltrations
Disloyal employees
Targeted infiltration
Comprehensive Explanation: User awareness training is a process of educating and informing users about the security policies, procedures, and best practices of an organization. User awareness training can help reduce the occurrence of security events by increasing the users’ knowledge, skills, and attitude towards security. User awareness training can have different impacts on different types of security events, depending on the nature and source of the events. The order of impact from most to least is as follows:
User-instigated: These are security events that are caused by the actions or inactions of the users, such as clicking on malicious links, opening infected attachments, using weak passwords, sharing credentials, etc. User awareness training can have the most impact on reducing these events, as it can teach the users how to avoid common mistakes, recognize and report threats, and follow the security policies and guidelines12
Virus infiltrations: These are security events that involve the infection of a system or network by a malicious code, such as a virus, worm, or Trojan. User awareness training can have a significant impact on reducing these events, as it can educate the users about the sources and symptoms of malware, the importance of antivirus software and updates, and the proper handling of removable media and downloads12
Disloyal employees: These are security events that are perpetrated by the employees who have malicious intentions or motivations, such as stealing, sabotaging, or leaking sensitive information or resources. User awareness training can have a moderate impact on reducing these events, as it can raise the users’ awareness of the ethical and legal implications of their actions, the consequences of violating the security policies and agreements, and the methods of detecting and reporting suspicious activities. However, user awareness training may not be enough to deter or prevent some disloyal employees who have strong incentives or rationalizations for their actions12
Targeted infiltration: These are security events that are carried out by sophisticated and persistent attackers who aim to compromise a specific system or network, such as a nation-state, a competitor, or a hacker group. User awareness training can have a minimal impact on reducing these events, as it can only help the users to identify and avoid some of the common techniques used by the attackers, such as phishing, social engineering, or spoofing. However, user awareness training may not be effective against the advanced and customized tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by the attackers, who may exploit the vulnerabilities or weaknesses of the system or network, or use insider threats or compromised accounts to gain access12
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations, p. 440; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 7: Security Operations, p. 852.
Which of the following BEST describes a chosen plaintext attack?
Options:
The cryptanalyst can generate ciphertext from arbitrary text.
The cryptanalyst examines the communication being sent back and forth.
The cryptanalyst can choose the key and algorithm to mount the attack.
The cryptanalyst is presented with the ciphertext from which the original message is determined.
According to the CISSP CBK Official Study Guide, a chosen plaintext attack is a type of cryptanalysis that allows the cryptanalyst to generate ciphertext from arbitrary text. A cryptanalysis is the process of breaking or analyzing a cryptographic system or algorithm, by finding the plaintext, the key, or the algorithm from the ciphertext, or by exploiting the weaknesses or vulnerabilities of the system or algorithm. A chosen plaintext attack is a scenario where the cryptanalyst has access to the encryption function or device, and can choose any plaintext and obtain the corresponding ciphertext. A chosen plaintext attack can help the cryptanalyst to deduce the key or the algorithm, or to create a codebook or a dictionary that maps the plaintext to the ciphertext. The cryptanalyst does not examine the communication being sent back and forth, as this would be a ciphertext-only attack, where the cryptanalyst only has access to the ciphertext, and tries to infer the plaintext, the key, or the algorithm from the statistical or linguistic analysis of the ciphertext. The cryptanalyst does not choose the key and algorithm to mount the attack, as this would be a known plaintext attack, where the cryptanalyst has access to some pairs of plaintext and ciphertext that are encrypted with the same key and algorithm, and tries to find the key or the algorithm from the correlation or pattern between the plaintext and the ciphertext. The cryptanalyst is not presented with the ciphertext from which the original message is determined, as this would be a decryption problem, where the cryptanalyst has access to the ciphertext and the key or the algorithm, and tries to recover the plaintext from the ciphertext.
Which methodology is recommended for penetration testing to be effective in the development phase of the life-cycle process?
Options:
White-box testing
Software fuzz testing
Black-box testing
Visual testing
White-box testing is recommended during the development phase as it involves the examination of the application’s source code and design documents to identify vulnerabilities, ensuring that security is integrated into the development lifecycle. References: CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests, Chapter 8, page 219
An organization has decided to contract with a cloud-based service provider to leverage their identity as a service offering. They will use Open Authentication (OAuth) 2.0 to authenticate external users to the organization's services.
As part of the authentication process, which of the following must the end user provide?
Options:
An access token
A username and password
A username
A password
OAuth 2.0 is an authorization framework that enables a third-party application to obtain limited access to an HTTP service, either on behalf of a resource owner or by allowing the third-party application to obtain access on its own behalf. The end user must provide an access token to the service provider, which is issued by an authorization server after the user grants permission to the third-party application. The access token represents the user’s identity and the scope of access granted by the user. The service provider can then use the access token to authenticate the user and provide the requested service. A username and password are not required by OAuth 2.0, as they are only used to authenticate the user to the authorization server, not the service provider. A username or a password alone are not sufficient to authenticate the user to the service provider, as they do not indicate the scope of access granted by the user. References: OAuth 2.0, CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5: Identity and Access Management (IAM)
A security professional has been asked to evaluate the options for the location of a new data center within a multifloor building. Concerns for the data center include emanations and physical access controls.
Which of the following is the BEST location?
Options:
On the top floor
In the basement
In the core of the building
In an exterior room with windows
The best location for a new data center within a multifloor building is in the core of the building. This location can minimize the emanations and enhance the physical access controls. Emanations are the electromagnetic signals or radiation that are emitted by electronic devices, such as computers, servers, or network equipment. Emanations can be intercepted or captured by attackers to obtain sensitive or confidential information. Physical access controls are the measures that prevent or restrict unauthorized or malicious access to physical assets, such as data centers, servers, or network devices. Physical access controls can include locks, doors, gates, fences, guards, cameras, alarms, etc. The core of the building is the central part of the building that is usually surrounded by other rooms or walls. This location can reduce the emanations by creating a shielding effect and increasing the distance from the potential attackers. The core of the building can also improve the physical access controls by limiting the entry points and visibility of the data center12 References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 3: Security Engineering, p. 133; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 3: Security Engineering, p. 295.
What is the MOST efficient way to secure a production program and its data?
Options:
Disable default accounts and implement access control lists (ACL)
Harden the application and encrypt the data
Disable unused services and implement tunneling
Harden the servers and backup the data
The most efficient way to secure a production program and its data is to harden the application and encrypt the data. Hardening the application means applying the security best practices and standards to the development, testing, deployment, and maintenance of the application, such as input validation, output encoding, error handling, logging, patching, and configuration. Encrypting the data means applying the cryptographic techniques and algorithms to the data at rest and in transit, such as symmetric encryption, asymmetric encryption, hashing, and digital signatures. These two measures can provide a comprehensive and effective protection for the application and its data against various threats and attacks.
A. Disable default accounts and implement access control lists (ACL) is not the most efficient way to secure a production program and its data, because it only addresses one aspect of security, which is access control. Disabling default accounts and implementing ACLs can prevent unauthorized or inappropriate access to the application and its data, but it does not protect the application and its data from other vulnerabilities or risks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, denial-of-service, or data leakage.
C. Disable unused services and implement tunneling is not the most efficient way to secure a production program and its data, because it only addresses one aspect of security, which is network security. Disabling unused services and implementing tunneling can reduce the attack surface and enhance the confidentiality and integrity of the data in transit, but it does not protect the application and its data from other vulnerabilities or risks, such as logic flaws, broken authentication, insecure storage, or data tampering.
D. Harden the servers and backup the data is not the most efficient way to secure a production program and its data, because it only addresses one aspect of security, which is system security. Hardening the servers and backing up the data can improve the performance and availability of the application and its data, but it does not protect the application and its data from other vulnerabilities or risks, such as code injection, session hijacking, privilege escalation, or data disclosure.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8, page 481; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 8, page 437
Which of the following could elicit a Denial of Service (DoS) attack against a credential management system?
Options:
Delayed revocation or destruction of credentials
Modification of Certificate Revocation List
Unauthorized renewal or re-issuance
Token use after decommissioning
The modification of Certificate Revocation List (CRL) could elicit a Denial of Service (DoS) attack against a credential management system by altering the list of revoked certificates and preventing valid users from accessing the system or allowing invalid users to access the system. A CRL is a list of digital certificates that have been revoked by the issuing Certificate Authority (CA) before their expiration date and should not be trusted.
A. Delayed revocation or destruction of credentials is not a factor that could elicit a DoS attack against a credential management system, but rather a risk that could compromise the security and validity of the credentials and the system.
C. Unauthorized renewal or re-issuance is not a factor that could elicit a DoS attack against a credential management system, but rather a threat that could result in the misuse or impersonation of the credentials and the system.
D. Token use after decommissioning is not a factor that could elicit a DoS attack against a credential management system, but rather an issue that could affect the availability and performance of the system.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, page 216; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, page 183
Which of the following is an essential step before performing Structured Query Language (SQL) penetration tests on a production system?
Options:
Verify countermeasures have been deactivated.
Ensure firewall logging has been activated.
Validate target systems have been backed up.
Confirm warm site is ready to accept connections.
An essential step before performing SQL penetration tests on a production system is to validate that the target systems have been backed up. SQL penetration tests are a type of security testing that involves injecting malicious SQL commands or queries into a database or application to exploit vulnerabilities or gain unauthorized access. Performing SQL penetration tests on a production system can cause data loss, corruption, or modification, as well as system downtime or instability. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the target systems have been backed up before conducting the tests, so that the data and system can be restored in case of any damage or disruption. The other options are not essential steps, but rather optional or irrelevant steps. Verifying countermeasures have been deactivated is not an essential step, but rather a risky and unethical step, as it can expose the system to other attacks or compromise the validity of the test results. Ensuring firewall logging has been activated is not an essential step, but rather a good practice, as it can help to monitor and record the test activities and outcomes. Confirming warm site is ready to accept connections is not an essential step, but rather a contingency plan, as it can provide an alternative site for continuing the system operations in case of a major failure or disaster. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 9, p. 471; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, p. 417.
Application of which of the following Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standards will prevent an unauthorized wireless device from being attached to a network?
Options:
IEEE 802.1F
IEEE 802.1H
IEEE 802.1Q
IEEE 802.1X
IEEE 802.1X is a standard for port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN, preventing unauthorized devices from gaining network access.
A. IEEE 802.1F is not a valid IEEE standard.
B. IEEE 802.1H is a standard for transparent interconnection of lots of links (TRILL), which is a protocol for routing at the link layer.
C. IEEE 802.1Q is a standard for virtual LANs (VLANs), which is a technique for logically segmenting a network.
References: CISSP For Dummies, Seventh Edition, Chapter 4, page 97; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, page 247
Who is ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them?
Options:
Data Custodian
Executive Management
Chief Information Security Officer
Data/Information/Business Owners
The individuals who are ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them are the data/information/business owners. Data/information/business owners are the individuals who have the authority or accountability for the information assets of an organization, such as data, systems, or processes. Data/information/business owners are ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them, which means that they have to define and implement the rules and guidelines for classifying and securing the information assets according to their sensitivity, value, or criticality. Data/information/business owners also have to assign and oversee the roles and responsibilities of the data custodians and users, who are the individuals who have the duty or privilege to maintain or access the information assets of the organization. The other options are not the individuals who are ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them, but rather different or subordinate roles. A data custodian is an individual who has the duty to maintain or safeguard the information assets of an organization, such as backup, restore, or encryption. A data custodian is responsible to follow the instructions or directions of the data/information/business owner, but not to make the decisions or policies for the information assets. Executive management is the group of individuals who have the highest level of authority or leadership in an organization, such as board of directors, chief executive officer, or chief financial officer. Executive management is responsible to provide the support or approval for the information security strategy, policies, and programs of the organization, but not to directly manage or control the information assets. A chief information security officer is an individual who has the senior executive responsibility for overseeing and managing the information security strategy, policies, and programs of an organization. A chief information security officer is responsible to advise and assist the data/information/business owners, executive management, and other stakeholders on the information security matters, but not to own or operate the information assets. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 1, p. 28; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 5, p. 286.
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