Pass the PRMIA PRM Certification 8006 Questions and answers with ExamsMirror

The underlying asset in a treasury bond futures contract is any long term US Treasury bond with a maturity of more than 15 years and not callable within 15 years. The underlying asset in a Treasury note futures contract is any long term Treasury note with a maturity of no less than 6.5 years and no more than 10 years.

Note the difference between what the underlying asset is for treasury bond futures and treasury note futures. In either case, adjustments will be made for the coupon and maturity of the actual bond delivered (the concept of the adjustment of 'cheapest-to-deliver').

This question is based upon a weather derivative contract traded on the CME in the US. For each day, 'Heating-Degree-Days' (HDD) is calculated as equal to 65 degrees Fahrenheit minus the daily average temperature. The daily average temperature is based upon the temperature reported by the Earth Satellite Corporation using a specified automated weather station. Based upon daily values of HDD, an aggregated number called the 'CME degree days index' is calculated for each contract month. In other words, the index for a particular month is just the aggregation of the 'HDD' value for each of the days of that month. Each contract settles at the end of the month at a value equal to $20 x Degree Days Index. (In a similar way, 'Cooling Degree Days' are also calculated and a futures contract offered, except that CDD is equal to the average daily temperature minus 65 degrees). (Source: CME's website at CMEGroup.com)

In the given question, we are interested in hedging against the possibility of the temperature being too low. This means we should buy the HDD futures contract (the lower the temperature, the higher the difference of the average temperature from 65 degrees, and the higher the settlement). Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer. The lower the actual temperature turns out to be, the higher the payout to the grower. It would not be wise to wait till January to buy the contract as by then the prices of the contract would have already risen if the grower's fears of a colder January appear to be coming true. He can hedge his exposure by immediately locking in the January prices.

A swaption is an option to enter into a fixed for floating interest rate swap at a point in the future, with the fixed rate decided upfront. These options can be European, Bermudan or American, in terms of what dates the option can be exercised. A receiver option on a swap is an option that gives the buyer the right to enter into a swap and receive the fixed rate and pay the variable rate. In the case of a payer option, the buyer pays the fixed rate and receives the variable rate. One way to remember this is that receiving and paying are terms used with reference to the fixed rates.

When the forward prices are greater than the spot prices, the market is said to be in contango. When forward prices are lower than spot prices, the market is said to be backwarded. A short squeeze may contribute to backwardation. Choice 'a' is the correct answer.

There are two main theories that explain an upward sloping yield curve. The first is the market expectations hypothesis (called 'pure expectations'). According to this explanation, the yield curve represents investor expectations of future yields, and forward rates are predictors of future interest rates. The yield curve slopes upwards when investors expect interest rates to go up in the future. Thus, statement I is correct. By the same logic, statement II is incorrect.

The second explanation for an upward sloping yield curve is the liquidity preference theory - according to which investors value liquidity and are prepared to pay more for instruments that mature earlier. Having their money tied up in longer maturity instruments increases all kinds of risks, and therefore longer term instruments are priced lower than instruments maturing earlier. Since the price of instruments that mature earlier is higher, their yield is lower than that of longer dated securities, thereby leading to an upward sloping yield curve. Therefore statement III is correct.

Statement IV actually explains why an yield curve may be downward sloping - in fact an inverted yield curve is considered an indicator of an upcoming recession. Therefore statement IV does not explain an upward sloping yield curve, and is therefore not a correct choice for the answer.

Thus statements I and III correctly explain an upward sloping yield curve. Other choices are incorrect.

A short position in a fixed rate bond and a long position in an FRN has the effect of paying fixed and receiving floating. The floating received offsets the floating payment on the borrowing, leaving the borrower with just a fixed rate outflow. Therefore the combination identified in statement I can be used to achieve the objective of paying fixed.

A collar is equivalent to a long position in an interest rate cap combined with a short position in an interest rate floor. This has the effect of setting a range within which the investor's borrowing rate will vary. In the case where the cap and floor rates are the same, the combination of a collar and a long FRN effectively produces an outcome where the holder of such positions pays a fixed rate. Therefore, an interest rate collar can be used to convert the fixed payment to a floating rate payment. [Example: Assume current interest rate is 3%, and therefore the borrower has a liability of 3% on the FRN. Assume that the borrower now buys a collar at the strike rate of 4%. Now the borrower receives 0% (=Max(3 % - 4%, 0)) on the cap part of the collar, and pays 1% on the floor part of the collar (=Max(4% - 3%, 0)). The net borrowing cost therefore is 3% paid on the FRN plus 1% paid on the collar, equal to 4%. Now if interest rates rise to say 6%, the borrower pays 6% on the FRN, and receives 2% from the collar (=Max(6% - 4%, 0) - Max(4% - 6%, 0)), creating a net cost of 6% - 2% = 4%.

A collar is often issued with an FRN to convert floating flows to fixed. Therefore combination II is an acceptable choice.

A short position in a fixed rate bond and a short position in an FRN produces a cash flow that does not produce a net fixed cash outflow when combined with the borrowing. Therefore statement III is not a valid combination.

An interest rate swap where the investor pays fixed and receives floating, when combined with a floating payment on an FRN leaves a net fixed payment, Therefore statement IV is a valid way to achieve the borrower's objective.

This question relates to the Black Scholes PDE (partial differential equation). The Black Scholes PDE is derived by combining the results of a stock price following a Weiner process with a mathematical result known as Ito's lemma and holds true for all derivatives whose prices depend upon S, the price of the underlying and upon t, which indicates time.

The derivation of the Black Scholes PDE is beyond the scope of the PRM syllabus (and also of the author of this question), but we need to know what it is. The PDE can be written as:

202.21.q1

Substituting , this can also be written as

202.21.e

202.21.q2

Therefore the first and the second equations are correct, and the other two are wrong. Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

You should know the PDE in case there is a numerical question about it. The two ways of writing it (as I and II above in the question) express the same relationship. The BSM formula itself for valuing a vanilla European option is based upon the PDE. Most other options are also valued using the fundamental relationship expressed in the PDE.

On-the-run bonds yield less, and therefore are priced higher than similar off-the-run bonds. The difference in their pricing reflects the fact that on-the-run bonds are more liquid than off-the-run bonds. Therefore statements I and II are correct. Bonds are on-the-run when they are issued, and change hands frequently, and over time as they become 'seasoned', newer bonds take their place as on-the-run bonds making them off-the-run.

Strips are zero coupon instruments, and do not carry any coupon. Therefore statement III is not correct.

A lower bid-ask or bid-offer spread indicates lower transaction costs and is a result of greater liquidity. A higher bid-ask spread results for less liquid securities. Therefore statement IV is not correct.

To calculate the Modified Duration from Macaulay's duration, we use the relationship MD = D/(1+r), where MD is the modified duration and D the Macaulay Duration. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

From the put-call parity, we know that Call - Put = Stock - Bank deposit. Since the bank deposit has a zero delta, and the delta of the Stock itself is 1, we get the relationship Delta of Call - Delta of Put = 1. Therefore, if the delta of a call option is 0.3, the delta of the corresponding put option is 0.3 - 1 = -0.7