Pass the PRMIA PRM Certification 8006 Questions and answers with ExamsMirror

An yield curve would be meaningless if it combines, for example, the yield on a AAA bond with the yield on a bond near default on the same curve. Therefore statement I is incorrect as any typical yield curve generally refers to similar instruments, and similarity includes similarity of issuer type and credit risk profiles.

Statement II accurately describes an yield curve, and statement IV explains what the term structure is.

Statement III is incorrect as the liquidity preference theory offers an explanation for an upward sloping yield curve and not a downward sloping one.

Choice 'b' represents a correct description of a bullet bond. All other choices are incorrect.

Explanation:

In an American option, early exercise of the option is permitted. In a European option, early exercise is not permitted. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

Price quotes for futures where one of the currencies is the US dollar follow the convention of using the number of US dollars that one unit of the foreign currency can buy. (For JPY, 100 Yen is used.)

In the forward market, the convention used is the same as that used in the spot market.

In the spot market, prices are expressed as the number of units of the foreign currency that 1 USD can buy, except for GBP, EUR, AUD and NZD where it is the other way round (ie, number of USDs that 1 of each of these currencies can buy).

A fixed for floating interest rate swap would be the most appropriate to the company's needs. It will allow it to receive a fixed rate (which will offset the fixed payment it has to make on the loan) and pay a floating rate which it expects will be lower than the fixed rates. Choice 'a' is the correct answer.

Answer:

The LIBOR rate to use is the one at the beginning of the period, is 4.5%. The fixed rate payer owes 5%, and the floating rate payer owes 4.5% + 100bps. Thus the fixed rate payer will receive a payment equal to 0.5% for six months on $1m. This works out to $2500.(Recall that a fixed for floating interest rate swap exchanges fixed for floating rate payments, with only the net payment being made by either party.)

The LIBOR rate to use is the one at the beginning of the period, is 4.5%. The fixed rate payer owes 5%, and the floating rate payer owes 4.5% + 100bps. Thus the fixed rate payer will receive a payment equal to 0.5% for six months on $1m. This works out to $2500.

(Recall that a fixed for floating interest rate swap exchanges fixed for floating rate payments, with only the net payment being made by either party.)

This is a straightforward case of basic portfolio math - the only thing being that we are not explicitly given the correlation between the two assets, nor are we given the volatility of the risk free asset. But since the other asset in the portfolio is the risk free asset, it has no risk, ie its volatility is zero, and its correlation with the fund run by the hedge fund manager is also zero. Portfolio returns will be the average returns of the two assets, and portfolio variance will be given by the formula portfolio_vol. Its square root will provide the portfolio volatility.

Therefore the expected returns are = 60%*12% + 40%*4% = 8.8%

The combined volatility of this portfolio will be given by (in Excel formula format) as =SQRT((60%*12%)^2 + (40%*0%)^2 + 2*0*60%*40%*12%*0%) = 7.2%

A covered call is an attempt to earn premium income by selling calls while protecting against the downside by holding long the underlying. In case prices rise, the holder of the covered call can give away the held underlying. In case prices fall or stay below the strike price of the sold call, the holder of the covered call gets to keep the premium.

The holder of the covered call will suffer a loss if the price of the underlying declines due to the long position held in the underlying. However, these losses will be partly offset by the premiums earned on the calls sold.

Choice 'd' does not represent a correct statement as in the event of a rise in the price of the underlying the holder of the covered call will lose any upside, but will not have unlimited losses. In the event of a decline in stock prices, his losses will be equal to the loss on the underlying, minus the premium earned.

The objective of decisions relations to capital structure is to maximize the value to shareholders. The management of the company is entrusted with the job of maximizing shareholder value, and this objective is generally achieved by attempting to maximize enterprise value. Enterprise value includes the value of both debt and equity, and since debt has a fixed claim on the assets of the business, maximizing enterprise value also maximizes the value of equity.

The buyer of a cap who is primarily interested in protecting against a rise in interest rates and does not mind losing some of the gains if interest rates were to fall can reduce her costs by selling a floor with a lower strike rate. Selling a cap would further expose her to the risk of rising rates, exactly what she is trying to protect herself against, and reducing the strike rate for the cap will actually increase the cost of the cap. Similarly, increasing the time period to which the cap applies will also increase the cost of the cap.