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Questions # 1:

Immunology

The immunoglobulin molecule is made up of both heavy and light chains - the light chains can be comprised of which of the following:

Options:

A.

Alpha or beta

B.

Alpha or lambda

C.

Kappa or beta

D.

Kappa or lambda

Questions # 2:

Free T4 is affected the least by changes in plasma proteins during pregnancy.

Which of the following thyroid function assays is affected least by pregnancy:

Options:

A.

Total T3

B.

Total T4

C.

Free T4

Questions # 3:

The most common specimen analyzed in the hematology section is:

Options:

A.

plasma.

B.

whole blood.

C.

urine.

D.

serum.

Questions # 4:

Which of the following is a current title for clinical laboratory professionals with a 4 year degree?

Options:

A.

clinical laboratory technician

B.

medical laboratory technician

C.

medical laboratory scientist

D.

medical technologist

Questions # 5:

Each of the drugs/drug classes listed above have been known to cause drug-induced hemolytic anemia, although cephalosporins are the MOST COMMON cause. Cephalosporins can cause drug-induced hemolytic anemia when a patient produces antibodies to the particular cephalosporin drug in the presence of red blood cells. The drugs can alter the membrane appearance of the red blood cells, causing the body to mistake them as foreign. Complement becomes activated due to these antibodies; red cells are then destroyed causing hemolytic anemia. Dark urine, caused by intravascular hemolysis, is one of the most common symptoms associated with this condition.

Which one of the following drugs/drug classes is the MOST COMMON cause of drug-induced hemolytic anemia?

Options:

A.

Levodopa

B.

Quinidine

C.

Cephalosporins

D.

Levofloxacin

E.

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Questions # 6:

In this case, with the pre-incubation aPTT mixing study result "corrected" and the post-incubation aPTT mixing study result "not corrected", a coagulation inhibitor should be suspected. Both anti-factor VIII and lupus anticoagulant have been known to be slow-acting and can exhibit this result pattern. If a factor deficiency was present, we should not see a post-incubation prolongation.

Hematology

What may cause the following mixing studies results?

Initial aPTT = 133 seconds

1:1 Mix aPTT pre-incubation = 33 seconds

1:1 Mix aPTT post-incubation = 124 seconds

Options:

A.

Factor IX deficiency

B.

Factor XI deficiency

C.

A slow acting coagulation inhibitor

Questions # 7:

Deviations from Beer's Law are caused by:

Options:

A.

very low concentration of absorbing material

B.

polychromatic light

C.

very high concentrations of substance being measured in a colorimetric reaction

D.

stray light

Questions # 8:

Root cause analysis (RCA) is a structured study that determines the underlying causes of adverse events. RCA focuses on systems, processes, and common causes that were involved in the adverse event. It then determines ways to prevent recurrence by identifying potential improvements in systems and processes that should decrease the likelihood of repeating the event.

Failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA) is used to evaluate a process prior to its implementation. Its purpose is to identify ways in which a process might possibly fail with the goal being to eliminate or reduce the likelihood of such a failure.

Monitoring quality indicators is important in the maintenance of quality health care. Quality indicators should be identified to prevent medical errors from occurring or to prevent the recurrence of a quality issue. However, it is not the method that is used to evaluate an adverse event after it has occurred.

A medical record audit may be a part of a root cause analysis.

A medical event occurs that results in serious injury to a patient. All systems, processes, and common causes that were involved in the adverse event should be evaluated. A method that can be implemented to effectively study the underlying causes is known as:

Options:

A.

Failure mode and effect analysis

B.

Monitoring of quality indicators

C.

Medical record audit

D.

Root cause analysis

Questions # 9:

What component is indicated for patients who receive directed donations from immediate family members to prevent transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)?

Options:

A.

Irradiated Red Blood Cells

B.

Washed Red Blood Cells

C.

IgA-deficient products

D.

HLA matched products

Questions # 10:

Microcontainer collection order of draw differs from regular peripheral blood collection order of draw. When performing a capillary draw, the lavender top container is obtained first. This decreases the possibility of clots in the container which would invalidate the results of the complete blood count test.

After the lavender is drawn, other containers with anticoagulants would be collected, and containers without anticoagulants would be collected last.

A phlebotomist must perform a skin puncture to obtain capillary specimens for a complete blood count (CBC), a plasma-based chemistry test, and a serum-based immunology test. The microcollection containers that will be used are lavender top containing EDTA anticoagulant, green top containing heparin anticoagulant, and gold top containing no anticoagulant. Which microcollection container should be collected first?

Options:

A.

Lavender top

B.

Green top

C.

Gold top

D.

The order of draw is not important.

Questions # 11:

Beer's law is based on the fact that absorbance is directly proportional to the concentration of a solution. Therefore, stray light can alter the absorbance results in this type of assay.

Deviations from Beer's Law are caused by:

Options:

A.

very low concentration of absorbing material

B.

polychromatic light

C.

very high concentrations of substance being measured in a colorimetric reaction

D.

stray light

Questions # 12:

According to OSHA, Hazard Communication 1910.1200 has the purpose of ensuring that the hazards of all chemicals produced or imported are evaluated, and that information concerning their hazards is transmitted to employers and employees.

Also known as the "Right To Know Law," which one of the following OSHA regulations first dealt with specific information related to the contents of chemicals used in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Blood Borne Pathogens 1910.1030

B.

Formaldehyde 1910.1048

C.

Right To Know Communication 1910.5555

D.

Hazard Communication 1910.1200

E.

Occupational Exposure 1910.1450

Questions # 13:

Chemistry

Estrogen and progesterone markers are most commonly used to provide prognostic information about:

Options:

A.

Breast cancer

B.

Uterine cancer

C.

Menopause

D.

Cervical cancer

Questions # 14:

Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus that produces a strong toxin. C difficile is a common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis.

Microbiology

A recto-sigmoidoscopy revealed pseudomembranes in a patient with severe diarrhea following prolonged treatment with ampicillin. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to be isolated?

Options:

A.

Bacteroides fragilis

B.

Clostridium botulinum

C.

Clostridium difficile

D.

Fusobacterium nucleatum

E.

Klebsiella oxytoca

Questions # 15:

The hepatitis B vaccine is a series of immunizations consisting of three injections of the hepatitis B antigen. The antigen causes the recipient of the injection to make antibodies against the antigen, hence why this is an example of active immunity.

Immunology

The hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during Orientation. Which type of immunity is expected to develop and provide long-term protection?

Options:

A.

active

B.

passive

C.

adoptive

D.

innate

E.

inactive

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