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Viewing page 8 out of 12 pages
Viewing questions 106-120 out of questions
Questions # 106:

Following an AMI, elevated CK-MB returns to normal ranges in 48-72 hours. If a patient has a second AMI in this time period, a second rise in concentrations of CK-MB would be seen. This is not true for the cardiac troponins since they remain elevated 7-14 days following an AMI.

Which one of the following cardiac biomarkers could detect a reinfarction?

Options:

A.

cTnI

B.

cTnT

C.

TnC

D.

CK-MB

Questions # 107:

The Westgard multi-rule 22S describes the scenario where two consecutive data points fall outside +2SD or -2SD. If this occurs, then the run must be rejected. This situation is most likely caused by a systematic error.

Which of the following describes the Westgard multi-rule 22S?

Options:

A.

Two control data points are within ± 2s

B.

One control data point falls outside +2s and a second point falls outside - 2s

C.

Two consecutive data points fall outside +2SD or -2SD

D.

Two consecutive data points fall inside +2s

E.

Two points are within 2SD

Questions # 108:

Antibodies are differentiated based on their heavy chains; different heavy chains create different isotypes. Humans have five different isotypes of immunoglobulins.

Immunology

The part of the molecule responsible for differences among immunoglobulin classes is:

Options:

A.

Fc

B.

Fab

C.

heavy chains

D.

light chains

E.

Hinge regions

Questions # 109:

Flow cytometry employs a combination of fluorescent antibody tagging of cells and analysis with laser light scatter.

What principle(s) of flow cytometry are employed when performing immunophenotyping:

Options:

A.

Defraction gradients

B.

Impedance

C.

Defraction gradients and impedance

D.

Fluorescent antibody tagging and light scatter

Questions # 110:

A monoclonal B-cell population (Kappa or Lambda predominant) with expression of CD19, CD20, CD23, and co-expression of CD5 is consistent with which of the following?

Options:

A.

A normal B cell

B.

Chronic

C.

Mantle cell lymphoma

D.

A mature T cell

Questions # 111:

Any oxidase-positive organism can be excluded from the Enterobacteriaceae. The other characteristics are as a rule present in these organisms.

Which of the following is not true about members of the Enterobacteriaceae:

Options:

A.

Gram-negative

B.

Oxidase positive

C.

Reduce nitrate to nitrite

D.

Ferment glucose

Questions # 112:

The electrolyte panel consists of potassium, sodium, chloride, carbon dioxide. These analytes are also typically ordered within other panels as well, including the basic metabolic and complete metabolic panels.

An electrolyte panel (lytes, chem-4) consists of:

Options:

A.

Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, Carbon dioxide

B.

Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, Glucose

C.

Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, Creatinine

D.

Potassium, Sodium, Chloride, BUN

Questions # 113:

In sickle cell anemia, rapid hemoglobin turnover may be present. HbA1C and other glycated hemoglobin assays are not valid in rapid hemoglobin turnover and in abnormal hemoglobin conditions. Fructosamine measurements can be used because of shorter half life of albumin.

HbA1C measurements are NOT ordinarily used to monitor long-term diabetic control in a diabetic with sickle cell anemia.

Options:

A.

true

B.

false

Questions # 114:

Skeletal deformations result from the increased erythropoiesis that occurs in beta thalassemia major. Children with beta thalassemia intermedia may demonstrate some facial bone deformity, however this is not common. Beta thalassemia minor rarely causes any physical signs or symptoms and beta thalassemia minima is completely asymptomatic.

Skeletal deformations are most commonly present in which of the following beta thalassemias?

Options:

A.

Beta thalassemia minor

B.

Beta thalassemia intermedia

C.

Beta thalassemia major

D.

None of the beta thalassemias

E.

All of the beta thalassemias equally

Questions # 115:

A normal hemoglobin molecule consists of a tetramer, of four heme and four globin chains, with a molecular weight of 64,500 daltons. Each of the four units can bind a molecule of oxygen for transport to the body's tissues. In the image shown below, there are four monomers (2 red globin chains and 2 blue globin chains) which form the entire hemoglobin tetramer structure. The green portions represent the 4 heme groups.

A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of the following:

Question # 115

Options:

A.

Ferrous iron and four globin chains

B.

Four heme and four globin chains

C.

Four heme and one globin chains

D.

One heme and four globin chains

Questions # 116:

Cryoglobulin testing can be used to:

Options:

A.

Screen for rheumatoid arthritis

B.

Screen for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

C.

Help diagnose Raynaud's syndrome

D.

Diagnose syphilis

Questions # 117:

Hives and rash usually indicate an allergic reaction. Hematuria is due to a variety of causes. Fever and chills usually indicate a febrile reaction. Positive DAT due to conditions other than sensitization to red cell alloantigens is not uncommon. Therefore a positive DAT in the posttransfusion specimen with a negative DAT in the pretransfusion specimen is more likely to indicate alloimmunization.

The most definite indication that a patient has been sensitized to a specific red cell antigen is:

Options:

A.

Hives and rash

B.

A positive posttransfusion DAT in a patient with a previously negative DAT

C.

A positive posttransfusion DAT in a patient with a previously positive DAT

D.

Hemoglobinuria

Questions # 118:

Ferritin and hemosiderin are considered storage forms of iron.

Which substance(s) is/are considered iron storage compounds?

Options:

A.

hemosiderin

B.

ferritin

C.

hemoglobin

D.

myoglobin

Questions # 119:

All of the following have been an inspection deficiency for CLIA-approved laboratories except:

Options:

A.

The laboratory needs to verify that written policies and procedures are established for patient testing.

B.

The laboratory needs to verify the accuracy of any test or procedure it performs.

C.

The laboratory needs to verify that the eyewash stations are properly functioning.

D.

The laboratory needs to verify the proper storage for reagents and patient specimens.

Questions # 120:

The second choice is correct. Standard Precautions means to treat blood, all body fluids, all secretions (except sweat), all excretions, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes as if they were infectious. The purpose of this rule is to ensure the safety of and to protect those who come into contact with potentially infectious material.

Which one statement about Standard Precautions is most correct?

Options:

A.

Standard Precautions means to treat all patients as if they were infectious.

B.

Standard Precautions means to treat blood, all body fluids, all secretions (except sweat), all excretions, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes as if they were infectious.

C.

Standard Precautions do not apply to feces or urine.

D.

Standard Precautions do not apply to pleural fluid or semen.

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Viewing questions 106-120 out of questions
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