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Viewing questions 31-45 out of questions
Questions # 31:

A young man is experiencing difficult breathing after fainting. The physician orders a blood gas analysis which shows the following results:

pH = 7.25

pCO2 = 62 mmHg

pO2 = 70 mmHg

HCO3 = 23 mEq/L

Which condition is most likely afflicting this patient?

Options:

A.

metabolic alkalosis

B.

metabolic acidosis

C.

respiratory alkalosis

D.

respiratory acidosis

Questions # 32:

Nucleated RBCs may be seen in the peripheral blood in cases of beta thalassemia major. Nucleated RBCs are usually not found in peripheral blood in cases of beta thalassemia minor and beta thalassemia intermedia, and would not be a finding in beta thalassemia minima.

Nucleated RBCs are most likely to be seen in the peripheral blood of which of these beta thalassemias?

Options:

A.

Beta thalassemia minima

B.

Beta thalassemia minor

C.

Beta thalassemia intermedia

D.

Beta thalassemia major

Questions # 33:

Measuring the turnaround times of troponin tests from the emergency department would provide valuable information. This data represents circumstances in which patient safety may be compromised if results are delayed and treatment is not started as soon as possible.

A laboratory manager wants to evaluate the timeliness of patient services in order to prevent medical errors caused by delay in treatment. Measuring the turnaround time for which of these analytes would provide the most valuable information?

Options:

A.

Routine glucose tests from patients on medical floors

B.

Lipid panels from the outpatient clinic

C.

Troponin tests from the emergency department

Questions # 34:

Which of the following testing options would be classified as waived testing by CLIA standards?

Options:

A.

Complete blood count (CBC)

B.

PCR testing

C.

Blood glucose for home use

D.

Microscopic examination for the presence of bacteria

Questions # 35:

Certain recipients have increased risk for developing TA-GVHD. They are:

Neonates less than 4 months of age

Fetuses

Recipients with a congenital or acquired immunodeficiency, such as bone marrow or stem cell recipients, and patients receiving chemotherapy

recipients of donor units from a blood relative

Which of the following patients are at risk for transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD) and require irradiated cellular blood products? (Choose all that apply)

Options:

A.

Neonates less than 4 months of age

B.

Recipients of donor units known to be from a blood relative.

C.

Patients with chronic anemias.

D.

Patient receiving chemotherapy who are immunocompromised.

E.

Patients with a history of allergic reactions.

Questions # 36:

Parathyroid hormone regulates serum calcium by acting on bone, kidney, and intestines while regulating phosphate by stimulating the intestines and the kidneys, enhancing absorption and reabsorption respectively.

Chem

The parathyroid hormone is important in the regulation of:

Options:

A.

iodine and bromine

B.

calcium and phosphate

C.

acid and alkaline phosphatase

D.

zinc and magnesium

Questions # 37:

Chain-of-Custody procedures must be followed for

Options:

A.

routine urinalysis for glucose and ketones

B.

Throat swabs of groups A beta streptococcus screening

C.

Therapeutic drug threshold determinations

D.

blood specimens for alcohol level determination

Questions # 38:

Small, dense LDL is most likely to interact with arterial walls, leading to deposition of cholesterol, and initiating or worsening atherosclerosis. Small, dense LDL is associated with more than a three-fold increase in the risk of coronary heart disease.

Large, buoyant LDL is less atherogenic than small, dense LDL.

The LDL phenotype A is normal. It is the so called 'B' pattern that is associated with increased risk.

Which of the following is most likely to interact with arterial walls, leading to deposition of cholesterol, and initiating or worsening atherosclerosis?

Options:

A.

Large buoyant LDL

B.

Small dense LDL

C.

LDL phenotype 'A'

Questions # 39:

Eosinophils do not have cytoplasm containing large purple/blue-staining granules. Instead, their granules are large but are orange/red in color. These granules are very distinctive for this type of cell, typically making their identification simple.

ll of the following statements describe an eosinophil EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Cytoplasm contains large purple/blue-staining granules.

B.

May be called an "eo"

C.

Is a member of the granulocyte series

D.

Cytoplasm contains large reddish-orange granules.

Questions # 40:

Incompatiblity involving the ABO blood group system can cause the most severe type of transfusion reaction.

The cause of the most severe life-threatening hemolytic transfusion reactions is:

Options:

A.

Anti-D

B.

Anti-M

C.

Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A, B

D.

Anti-Fya

Questions # 41:

Beta-thalassemia major, also known as Cooley's anemia, has inherited two genes for beta thalassemia without a normal beta-chain gene. This disease is assoicated with a marked deficiency in beta chain production and in the production of normal Hb A. These patients exhibit increased amounts of iron due to the mutliple transfusions that keep them alive. There is also a striking increase in hemoglobin F and an elevation in hemoglobin A2.

Hematology

A 5-year-old African American child with hepato-splenomegaly and skeletal abnormalities has the following lab results:

WBC = 4,800/cu.mm

20 NRBC/100 WBC

RBC = 2.70 X 106

HGB = 6.2 g/dL

Many target cells

Marked hypochromasia, anisocytosis & poikilocytosis

Serum Iron = 200 µg/dL (elevated)

Sickle Solubility = negative

Hemoglobin F = elevated

What is the PROBABLE cause of these findings?

Options:

A.

Aplastic anemia

B.

Beta-thalassemia major

C.

Sickle cell anemia

D.

Hemoglobin C disease

Questions # 42:

Fibers can be mistaken for casts on occasion, especially hyaline casts. Fibers, however, are usually thinner and appear less uniform in structure than casts do.

Urinalysis & Other Body Fluids

Which of the following artifacts may be mistaken for casts?

Options:

A.

Air bubbles

B.

Fibers

C.

Coverslip scratches

D.

Talc particles

Questions # 43:

The term affinity refers to the strength of attraction between a single antigenic determinant and a corresponding antigen binding site. The term avidity refers to the total strength of the attraction between an antibody and a multivalent antigen. The reaction between an IgM molecule (which has 10 antigen binding sites), and a multivalent antigen is therefore much stronger than that of an IgG antibody (which has only 2 antigen binding sites).

Avidity is best described by which of the following statements:

Options:

A.

The strength with which red cells agglutinate

B.

The strength with which multivalent antigens and antibodies bind

C.

The strength with which univalent antigens and antibodies bind

D.

The speed with which an antigen-antibody reaction occurs

Questions # 44:

To make a 1 : 10 dilution, 270 µL of diluent should be added to 30 µL of sample, .

A spinal fluid that is slightly hazy is briefly examined microscopically. The technologist performing the count decides to make a 1:10 dilution using 30 µL of sample. What volume of diluent should be used?

Options:

A.

70 µL

B.

270 µL

C.

300 µL

Questions # 45:

AHG must be added to the cells immediately following washing. Antibodies may elute from the cells if the cells are allowed to sit in saline without the addition of AHG.

Which one of the following may cause a FALSE-NEGATIVE result with antiglobulin techniques?

Options:

A.

Red cell/AHG test sample is over-centrifuged

B.

Patient's blood specimen was collected in silicone gel tubes

C.

Saline used for washing the test sample has been stored in squirt bottles

D.

Addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after final saline wash

E.

Patient's red cells have an antibody coating them

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