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90% Same Questions
Viewing page 5 out of 8 pages
Viewing questions 201-250 out of questions
Questions # 201:

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Questions # 202:

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

Questions # 203:

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Questions # 204:

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

Questions # 205:

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

Questions # 206:

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Questions # 207:

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

Questions # 208:

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Questions # 209:

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

Questions # 210:

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

Questions # 211:

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

Questions # 212:

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

Questions # 213:

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

Options:

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

Questions # 214:

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

Options:

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

Questions # 215:

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Questions # 216:

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.

Teaming agreements

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

Questions # 217:

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

Questions # 218:

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

Options:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

Questions # 219:

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

Questions # 220:

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

Questions # 221:

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

Questions # 222:

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

Questions # 223:

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

Options:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Questions # 224:

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

Questions # 225:

What is a tool to improve team performance?

Options:

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

Questions # 226:

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

Options:

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

Questions # 227:

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

Questions # 228:

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

Questions # 229:

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

Options:

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

Questions # 230:

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

Questions # 231:

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Questions # 232:

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

Options:

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

Questions # 233:

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

Questions # 234:

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

Questions # 235:

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

Questions # 236:

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Questions # 237:

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

Options:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Questions # 238:

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Questions # 239:

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Questions # 240:

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

Questions # 241:

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Questions # 242:

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

Questions # 243:

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

Questions # 244:

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

Options:

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

Questions # 245:

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

Questions # 246:

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Questions # 247:

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

Questions # 248:

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

Questions # 249:

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

Questions # 250:

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

Options:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

Viewing page 5 out of 8 pages
Viewing questions 201-250 out of questions
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