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Viewing questions 46-60 out of questions
Questions # 46:

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Question # 46

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Questions # 47:

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Questions # 48:

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

Questions # 49:

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

Options:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

Questions # 50:

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Questions # 51:

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Questions # 52:

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

Questions # 53:

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Questions # 54:

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Questions # 55:

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Questions # 56:

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Questions # 57:

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

Questions # 58:

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Options:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Questions # 59:

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Questions # 60:

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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